brazil84 comments on Does the simulation argument even need simulations? - Less Wrong

7 Post author: lmm 11 October 2013 09:16PM

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Comment author: brazil84 12 October 2013 08:29:08AM 0 points [-]

Can we use this to argue for a flaw in the original simulation argument?

I don't think so since it's reasonable to hypothesize that man-made simulations would, generally speaking, by more on the orderly side as opposed to being full of random nonsense.

But it's still an interesting question. One can imagine a room with 2 large computers. The first computer has been carefully programmed to simulate 1950s Los Angeles. There are people in the simulation who are completely convinced that the live in Los Angeles in the 1950s.

The second computer is just doing random computations. But arguably there is some cryptographic interpretation of those computations which also yields a simulation of 1950s Los Angeles.

Comment author: Baughn 12 October 2013 06:49:36PM 0 points [-]

I'd like to see that argument. If you can find a mapping that doesn't end up encoding the simulation in the mapping, I'd be surprised.

Comment author: brazil84 12 October 2013 08:37:20PM 2 points [-]

I'd like to see that argument. If you can find a mapping that doesn't end up encoding the simulation in the mapping, I'd be surprised.

Well why should it matter if the simulation is encoded in the mapping?

Comment author: Baughn 13 October 2013 04:39:00PM 1 point [-]

If it is, that screens off any features of what it's mapping; you can no longer be surprised that 'random noise' produces such output.

Comment author: brazil84 15 October 2013 08:56:09AM 0 points [-]

Again, so what?

Let me adjust the original thought experiment:

The operation first computer is encrypted using a very large one-time pad.