The trouble with this is that it contradicts the Reason for Being Moral In the First Place, as outlined in Elizier's metaethics. Said reason effectively comes down to obeying moral instincts, after all.
WHY said morality came about is irrelevant. What's important is that it's there.
Said reason effectively comes down to obeying moral instincts, after all.
Presumably you mean the post The Bedrock of Morality: Arbitrary?, which is apparently some form of moral realism, since it refuses to attach e- prefix (for Eliezer) or even h- prefix to his small subset of possible h-shoulds. I have not been able to understand why he does it, and I don't see what h-good dropping it does. But then I have not put a comparable effort into learning or developing metaethics.
...WHY said morality came about is irrelevant. What's important is that it's ther
My apologies if this doesn't deserve a Discussion post, but if this hasn't been addresed anywhere than it's clearly an important issue.
There have been many defences of consequentialism against deontology, including quite a few on this site. What I haven't seen, however, is any demonstration of how deontology is incompatible with the ideas in Elizier's Metaethics sequence- as far as I can tell, a deontologist could agree with just about everything in the Sequences.
Said deontologist would argue that, to the extent a human universial morality can exist through generalised moral instincts, said instincts tend to be deontological (as supported through scientific studies- a study of the trolley dilemna v.s the 'fat man' variant showed that people would divert the trolley but not push the fat man). This would be their argument against the consequentialist, who they could accuse of wanting a consequentialist system and ignoring the moral instincts at the basis of their own speculations.
I'm not completely sure about this, but figure it an important enough misunderstanding if I indeed misunderstood to deserve clearing up.