I'm not sure about this, but presenting it anyway for scrutiny.
I was thinking that it doesn't matter if a concept is undefined, or even cannot be defined, if hypothetically speaking said concept can exist without any ambiguity within it then it is still a tenable concept. The implications, if this is true, would be that it would knock down Quine's argument against the analytic-synthetic distinction.
Sir Karl Popper was also not keen on definitions. From memory (so please check my claims) he said all definitions lead to infinite regressions of 'yes, but what does that mean?'
I'm not sure about this, but presenting it anyway for scrutiny.
I was thinking that it doesn't matter if a concept is undefined, or even cannot be defined, if hypothetically speaking said concept can exist without any ambiguity within it then it is still a tenable concept. The implications, if this is true, would be that it would knock down Quine's argument against the analytic-synthetic distinction.
Your thoughts, Lesswrong?