Yes, but the behaviours described as "conscious" do exist in the actual territory. Same with red. A conception of what it means to be "conscious" has been constructed, which as I said I can rip off for my purposes. My definition of free will is still coherent.
I'm not sure about this, but presenting it anyway for scrutiny.
I was thinking that it doesn't matter if a concept is undefined, or even cannot be defined, if hypothetically speaking said concept can exist without any ambiguity within it then it is still a tenable concept. The implications, if this is true, would be that it would knock down Quine's argument against the analytic-synthetic distinction.
Your thoughts, Lesswrong?