I simply don't believe you that philosophers use these words consistently. Philosophers have an extremely bad track record of asserting that they use words consistently.
Clarification- do you mean inconsistencies within or between philosophers? Between philosophers I agree with you- within a single philosopher's work I'd be curious to see examples.
There seems to be a widespread impression that the metaethics sequence was not very successful as an explanation of Eliezer Yudkowsky's views. It even says so on the wiki. And frankly, I'm puzzled by this... hence the "apparently" in this post's title. When I read the metaethics sequence, it seemed to make perfect sense to me. I can think of a couple things that may have made me different from the average OB/LW reader in this regard: