I just mean that philosophers have a bad track record asserting that they are using the same definition as each other. That's rather worse than just not using the same definition. I told Jack that he wasn't using the same definition as the Stanford Encyclopedia. I didn't expect him to believe me, but he didn't even notice. Does that count for your purpose, since he chose the source?
But, yes, I do condemn argument by definition because I don't trust the individuals to have definitions.
There seems to be a widespread impression that the metaethics sequence was not very successful as an explanation of Eliezer Yudkowsky's views. It even says so on the wiki. And frankly, I'm puzzled by this... hence the "apparently" in this post's title. When I read the metaethics sequence, it seemed to make perfect sense to me. I can think of a couple things that may have made me different from the average OB/LW reader in this regard: