If morality varies with individuals, as required by subjectivism, it is not at all universal, so the two are not orthogonal.
Subjectivism does not require that morality varies with individuals.
Morality is objective when the truth values of moral statements don't vary with individuals or groups
No, see the link above.
The link supports what I said. Subjectivism requires that moral claims have truth values which , in principle, dpened on the individual making them. It doesn't mean that any two people will necessarily have a different morality, but why would I assert that?
There seems to be a widespread impression that the metaethics sequence was not very successful as an explanation of Eliezer Yudkowsky's views. It even says so on the wiki. And frankly, I'm puzzled by this... hence the "apparently" in this post's title. When I read the metaethics sequence, it seemed to make perfect sense to me. I can think of a couple things that may have made me different from the average OB/LW reader in this regard: