PhilGoetz comments on To like, or not to like? - Less Wrong
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If you apply my strategy to any other field, the numbers give the result that noone before the 18th century should have been the greatest in anything because the human population has grown so much since then, yes. When you do the numbers and they give you a definitive answer, you don't dismiss it as "absurd" because you don't like it (or because you have a bug up your ass about the person who ran the numbers).
My separation of classes chronologically is, like all good models, inspired by observation. In this case, the observation that a statistically-impossible number of the people considered "best in field" came very early in those fields, even in fields like literature where coming early is a disadvantage rather than an advantage as regards the quality or contemporary opinion of your work.
Why are you always especially rude to me?
One man's modus ponens is another man's modus tollens. You have amply explained why you reached the conclusion you did based on idiosyncratic personal preferences and constructed an unconvincing model to try to justify it; there are no 'numbers' here, there is only absurd reference class tennis. ('Stratford-on-Avon had 0.0001% of the medieval English population; the odds against the greatest English writer coming from Stratford-on-Avon is astronomically unlikely!') I am perfectly happy saying that the result refute the pseudo-premises - not that you gave a precise model in the first place: I will ask you again, what is the right amount of criticism for Shakespeare that would satisfy you that he really was the greatest writer ever?
The damning point here is that you are willing to bite the bullet and say it applies to sciences as well, where we would, contrariwise, naturally expect the earlier a scientist to live, the easier it is to make incredible discoveries and pick up low-hanging fruit. Only an early scientists has a hope of discovering, say, gravity. Or an early mathematician something like calculus. You have to live as early as Parmenides if you want to discover something basic and extremely important like 'the moon is illuminated by the sun'.
In the cases where we have objective measures (like memorization contests) we see records being broken all the time (which is as we'd expect). A lot of this can be attributed to improved general intelligence, but we'd expect that to be correlated with creative skill too. Are there any measurable world records from the Elizabethan era that still stand?
You're measuring something here, but I don't think it's likeability. Newton may have been more historically important than Einstein, but no-one would prefer the former's theory of gravity to the latter's. If Shakespeare got pretty close to the perfect tragedy, but there was a slight refinement of the form from the 19th century that's better (if less significant), surely people would prefer to watch that, and count themselves fans of that author.
I'm not sure what sort of world record you would have in mind, and given the parlous state of science at the time, what world records would you trust? If, for example, I exhibited a Chinaman from the Ming who lived for 231 years, which is surely a world record, you would rightly reject this by saying 'it is much more likely that this world record is inaccurate than he really did live to 231, given how notoriously bad records were at the time, the cultural value set on being the oldest man in the world, etc'.
If Shakespeare helped define what the perfect tragedy was, and all later tragedies felt the 'anxiety of influence', this isn't so clearcut. See my other comment.
You are ignoring the distinction PhilGoetz made in the grandparent comment:
Is that a real distinction? When Shakespeare is the 'most influential', then in some respects, he is setting what it means to be 'able'. He is setting our norms and expectations, laying down the language we think and write in. John Keats: "He has left nothing to say about nothing or any thing." Ralph Waldo Emerson: "His mind is the horizon beyond which at present we do not see."
When a writer is so influencing (should I say, 'distorting'?), is it really meaningful to draw a distinction between 'influential' and 'able'? Like Phil's implicit claim that every writer has an equal chance of being Shakespeare, this is not something I am willing to instantly grant without inspection.