TheOtherDave comments on Building Phenomenological Bridges - Less Wrong

56 Post author: RobbBB 23 December 2013 07:57PM

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Comment author: Kaj_Sotala 23 December 2013 10:05:49AM *  3 points [-]

Hmm. I previously mentioned that in my model of personal identity, our brains include planning machinery that's based on subjective expectation ("if I do this, what do I expect to experience as a result?"), and that this requires some definition of a "self", causing our brains to always have a model for continuity of self that they use in predicting the future.

Similarly, in the comments of The Anthropic Trilemma, Eliezer says:

It seems to me that there's some level on which, even if I say very firmly, "I now resolve to care only about future versions of myself who win the lottery! Only those people are defined as Eliezer Yudkowskys!", and plan only for futures where I win the lottery, then, come the next day, I wake up, look at the losing numbers, and say, "Damnit! What went wrong? I thought personal continuity was strictly subjective, and I could redefine it however I wanted!"

Translating those notions into the terminology of this post, it would seem like "personal identity" forms an important part of humans' bridge hypothesis: it is a rule that links some specific entity in the world-model into the agent's predicted subjective experience. If I believe that there is a personal continuity between me today and me tomorrow, that means that I predict experiencing the things that me-tomorrow will experience, which means that my bridge hypothesis privileges the me of tomorrow over other agents.

I get the feeling that here lies the answer to Eliezer's question, but I can't quite put my finger on the exact formulation. Something like "you can alter your world-model or even your model of your own bridge hypothesis, but you can't alter..." the actual bridge hypothesis? The actual bridge? Something else?

Comment author: TheOtherDave 24 December 2013 12:24:55AM 5 points [-]

FWIW, I don't really see what the line you quote adds to the discussion here.

I mean, I believe that preferences for white wine over red or vice-versa are strictly subjective; there's nothing objectively preferable about one over the other. It doesn't follow that I can say very firmly "I now resolve to prefer red wine!" and subsequently experience red wine as preferable to white wine. And from this we conclude... nothing much, actually.

Conversely, if Eliezer said "Only people who win the lottery are me!" and the next day the numbers Eliezer picked didn't win, and when I talked to Eliezer it turned out they genuinely didn't identify as Eliezer anymore, and their body was going along identifying as someone different... it's not really clear what we could conclude from that, either.

Comment author: HoverHell 14 January 2014 11:53:14AM 1 point [-]

The thing we can indirectly conclude is that “social identity” (“when I talked to … genuinely didn't identify as”) and “personal identity” (whatever that is) can be (at least intuitively) separate.

There's something about subjective perception consituting facts and bridge hypotheses having a validity measure (based on prediction of those facts) despite being “subjective”; but I can't make a better formulation either.

And there's also something about “I now resolve to prefer red wine” possibly working in the same way as “I now set my desktop background to white” (and possibly failing just as well).