Manfred comments on Foundations of Probability - Less Wrong

11 Post author: Manfred 26 January 2014 07:29PM

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Comment author: Manfred 30 January 2014 07:02:57AM 0 points [-]

what's the problem?

I'll tell you on Saturday!

Comment author: Kurros 03 February 2014 03:19:46AM 0 points [-]

Was the "Putting in the Numbers" post the one you were referring to? You didn't post that on Saturday, but now it is Monday and there doesn't seem be a third post. Anyway I did not see this question answered anywhere in "Putting in the Numbers"...

Comment author: Manfred 03 February 2014 03:24:29AM 0 points [-]

Yeah, sorry, I've been delayed by the realization that everything I wrote for the forthcoming post needed a complete re-write. Planning fallacy!

Comment author: Kurros 03 February 2014 04:30:09AM 0 points [-]

Lol ok, so long as I get my answer eventually :p.

Comment author: Kurros 30 January 2014 08:10:50AM 0 points [-]

Ok, but do you really mean that sentence how it is written? To me it means the same thing as saying that assigning probability to anything is logically equivalent to assigning probability to 0=1 (which I am perfectly happy to do so if that is the point then fine, but that doesn't seem to be your implication)