Well, I guess it could, but that isn't the claim being put forth in the OP.

(Unlike some around these parts, I see a clear distinction between an agent's posterior distribution and the agent's posterior-utility-maximizing part. From the outside, expected-utility-maximizing agents form an equivalence class such that all agents with the same <product of prior and utility function> are equivalent, and we need only consider the quotient space of agents; from the inside, the epistemic and value-laden parts of an agent can thought of separately.)