Eugine_Nier comments on AALWA: Ask any LessWronger anything - Less Wrong

28 Post author: Will_Newsome 12 January 2014 02:18AM

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Comment author: Eugine_Nier 15 January 2014 01:53:13AM 0 points [-]

Well, with respect to mathematics at least one difference between the Greeks and everybody else, is that the Greeks provided proofs of the non-obvious results.

Comment author: [deleted] 15 January 2014 03:05:11AM 0 points [-]

Yes, though that really got started with Euclid, who post-dates Aristotle. It's with Plato and Aristotle that the Greeks really set them-selves apart. I don't think we'd be reading any of the rest of it if it weren't for them.

Comment author: Eugine_Nier 15 January 2014 03:30:35AM 1 point [-]

Euclid is merely the first whose work has survived to the modern day. If tradition is to be believed, Thales and Pythagoras provided proofs of non-intuitive results from intuitive one. Furthermore, Hippocrates of Chios wrote a systematic treatment starting with axioms. All three predated Plato.

Comment author: [deleted] 15 January 2014 04:06:42AM 0 points [-]

That's a good point about Hippocrates, I'd forgotten about him. Do you have a source handy on Thales and Pythagoras? I don't doubt it, it's just a gap I should fill. So far as I remember, a proof that the square root of two is irrational came out of the Pythagorean school, but that's all I can think of. I hadn't heard anything like that about Thales.

Comment author: Eugine_Nier 15 January 2014 05:33:13AM 1 point [-]

I linked to the relevant Wikipedia articles in my comment.

Comment author: [deleted] 15 January 2014 03:30:33PM 0 points [-]

Ah, but note the 'history' section of the Thales article. It rather supports my picture, if it supports anything at all.

Comment author: Eugine_Nier 16 January 2014 01:55:23AM 0 points [-]

Why? If you mean that Thales learned the result from the Babylonians, the point is that he appears to have been the first to bother proving it.