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jsteinhardt comments on Open thread, January 25- February 1 - Less Wrong
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Are lotteries allowed to have infinitely many possible outcomes? (The Wikipedia page about the VNM axioms only says "many"; I might look it up on the original paper when I have time.)
I'm not sure, although I would expect VNM to invoke the Hahn-Banach theorem, and it seems hard to do that if you only allow finite lotteries. If you find out I'd be quite interested. I'm only somewhat confident in my original assertion (say 2:1 odds).