My point is that I don't see reason to think that we have any information about the probabilities. How can we say that "a1..a500 needs to be true in order for consciousness to remain after brain destruction"? What observations have we made that would lead us to think that? My feeling is that we've never actually made an observation that says x => unconsciousness, because we've never actually been able to infer a state of unconsciousness.
Right, but your real question is: is H2 more parsimonious than H4.
So you say that it can't be proven, but you have a "really strong intuition" that it is. Why? What observations have you made about what causes unconsciousness that would lead you to believe that it involves parsimony? And how have you been able to infer unconsciousness?
Because consciousness (regardless of whether it's based in something physical and observable, like the brain) by its inherent nature involves complex information processing. Even if you separate consciousness from the brain and put it in the abstract-unobservable-spirit-place-thing, it's still a mathematically defined structure with a lot of complexity. When the brain is right in front of you, you can point to it and say, there! that's a complex information processing structure!"When the brain is no longer in front of you, you necessarily have to posi...
I've read a fair amount on Less Wrong and can't recall much said about the plausibility of some sort of afterlife. What do you guys think about it? Is there some sort of consensus?
Here's my take:
Edit: People in the comments have just taken it as a given that consciousness resides solely in the brain without explaining why they think this. My point in this post is that I don't see why we have reason to reject the 3 possibilities above. If you reject the idea that consciousness could reside outside of the brain, please explain why.