The only dated prediction in the entire article related to 20 years, not 14 years, and the claim for 20 years was that snow would "probably" cause chaos then.
I'm sorry, I didn't realize 'within a few years' was so vague in English that it could easily embrace decades and I'm being tendentious in thinking that after 14 years we can safely call that prediction failed.
Still if you really want the statistics again, then the very latest published Met Office set runs up to 2009 if you really want to check, and the downward trend lines still continue all the way to the end of that data. See for instance this summary figures 2.32 and 2.35.
So first, that's 'air frost' ("usually defined as the air temperature being below freezing point of water at a height of at least one metre above the ground"), which is not what was in question. Second, looking at 2.32, the decline 2000-2007 (when the graph ends, so fully half the period in question when warming seems to have stopped) is far from impressive. Third, what's with it being 'filtered'? some sort of linear smoothing borrowing from the steeper-looking decline 1984-2000?
So if you want to claim that the trend in snow has recently stopped/reversed, then you are looking at a very short period (some cold winters in 2010-14).
No, I'm fine with your chosen smoothed graphs indicating only a shallow decline at best 2000-2007. No need to look just at 2010-2014, although certainly more recent data would probably help here.
And over periods that short, it's entirely possible we'll have another shift and be back onto the historic trend for the next five year period. So "catch up in six years" doesn't sound so implausible after all.
That sounds like wishful thinking. In those graphs, is there any 5-year period which if repeated would abruptly vindicate the confident predictions from 2000 that snow would soon be a thing of the past in England?
P.S. On the more technical points, the 2009 reports do not appear to plot the number of days of snow cover or cold spells (unlike the 2006 report) so I simply referred to the closest proxies which are plotted.
The "filtering" is indeed a form of local smoothing transform (other parts of the report refer to decadal smoothing) and this would explains why the graphs stop in 2007, rather than 2009: you really need a few years either side of the plotted year to do the smoothing. I can't see any evidence that the decline in the 80s was somehow factored into the plot in the 2000s.
I recently asked two questions on Quora with similar question structures, and the similarities and differences between the responses were interesting.
Question #1: Anthropogenic global warming, the greenhouse effect, and the historical weather record
I asked the question here. Question statement:
In response to some comments, I added the following question details:
I also posted to Facebook here asking my friends about the pushback to my use of the term "belief" in my question.
Question #2: Effect of increase in the minimum wage on unemployment
I asked the question here. Question statement:
I added the following question details:
I also posted the question to Facebook here.
Similarities between the questions
The questions are structurally similar, and belong to a general question type of considerable interest to the LessWrong audience. The common features to the questions:
Looking for help
I'm interested in thoughts from the people here on these questions: