Stuart_Armstrong comments on Blackmail, continued: communal blackmail, uncoordinated responses - Less Wrong

11 Post author: Stuart_Armstrong 22 October 2014 05:53PM

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Comment author: Stuart_Armstrong 24 October 2014 09:17:19AM *  1 point [-]

Can you find an example that's less political to make the same point?

Why? Are you arguing the example is wrong? Are you saying that you disagree with it personally? Because "don't talk about this general fact because someone else might think it has (weak) political implications" seems a heuristic to be avoided.

Comment author: ChristianKl 24 October 2014 11:34:29AM *  2 points [-]

political implications

No. We do have research on how people get mindkilled. It's not about implications. Certain classes of claims for example lead to most people stop being able to use Bayes Rule when you ask them to analyse a problem. I'm claiming that the example is in that class.

Are you saying that you disagree with it personally?

A core question in this case is: "What do we gain from defining blackmail in a way that this example is covered? What do we gain from defining it in a way that this isn't covered?"

Given that most people here disapprove of the action of those persecutors politically they feel the desire to punish them by using a negative label. That makes it harder to have the discussion based on the merits.

Because "don't talk about this general fact because someone else might think it has (weak) political implications" seems a heuristic to be avoided.

That's not the heuristic brought forward in "Politics is the mindkiller". The heuristic is: You have a set A of examples (X_1, Y_1. X_2, Y_2, Y_3 ...). The X examples are political and fire up a bunch of mental biases in your reader. Most of your readers will suddenly start to flunk Bayesian calculation if you make one of those X_i examples. The Y_i examples on the other hand allow your readers to reason normally. If you want to choose an example for A, to speak about A don't choose one of the X_i but one of the Y_i.

Comment author: Jiro 24 October 2014 02:57:42PM 1 point [-]

A core question in this case is: "What do we gain from defining blackmail in a way that this example is covered? What do we gain from defining it in a way that this isn't covered?"

We're trying to formalize our intuitions.

Comment author: ChristianKl 25 October 2014 05:27:24PM 1 point [-]

We're trying to formalize our intuitions.

The way the opening post is written it doesn't ask the question: "Should we consider this behavior blackmail?" but takes it for granted that the answer to that question is "Yes".

Shutting off questions like that is quite typical for how politics mindkilling works. "Boo, evil prosecutors"

Comment author: Jiro 25 October 2014 08:53:38PM 0 points [-]

That's the point of formalizing intuitions. He has a preexisting category, and he's trying to find the rule which formally describes what goes in the category. In order to do that you have to take for granted that certain things are and aren't in the category. If you didn't have a preexisting caregory there would be no reason to do it.

Comment author: Jiro 26 October 2014 03:50:56AM *  0 points [-]

Certain classes of claims for example lead to most people stop being able to use Bayes Rule when you ask them to analyse a problem.

Most people are unable to use Bayes' rule anyway, regardless of the class of claims.