Is that an expressed preference or a revealed one?
I wouldn't be surprised if the median woman would find a guy hotter when he's wearing suitable makeup, but if she discovered that he was wearing makeup, she would dislike that and start to avoid him or whatever. Which might still mean that the median man should not typically wear makeup, but it's less clear-cut than if the median women rates men as less attractive when they're wearing any kind of makeup.
(It seems implausible to me that the makeup industry would have found no product at all that could make men look more attractive to the median woman.)
I'm wondering whether two situations should be distinguished-- a man might be viewed more positively if he's wearing a little foundation to make his skin look smoother, but more negatively if a woman touches his face and notices it.
This is definitely hypothetical. Anyone have actual information?
This thread is for asking any questions that might seem obvious, tangential, silly or what-have-you. Don't be shy, everyone has holes in their knowledge, though the fewer and the smaller we can make them, the better.
Please be respectful of other people's admitting ignorance and don't mock them for it, as they're doing a noble thing.
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