TheAncientGeek comments on Is my theory on why censorship is wrong correct? - Less Wrong

-24 Post author: hoofwall 12 April 2015 04:03AM

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Comment author: TheAncientGeek 12 April 2015 01:05:35PM -1 points [-]

Discriminating against people, a.k.a., applying Baysian priors, is in fact rational, 

Discrimination of the kind that gets legislated against in fact isnt.

Comment author: VoiceOfRa 12 April 2015 05:24:47PM 2 points [-]

Um, no.

Comment author: TheAncientGeek 12 April 2015 06:00:38PM *  0 points [-]

The U.S. Supreme Court has established certain tests for determining whether disparate (different) treatment of a group is discriminatory and illegal. If the treatment is based on what the law refers to as a “suspect classification,” the disparate treatment will be subject to “strict scrutiny.”A suspect classification is some characteristic of the victim, typically immutable (one that cannot be changed, such as age, gender or race), that has no bearing on the person’s ability to perform his or her job. Under current Supreme Court rulings, there are four traits that are considered suspect classifications: race, national origin, religion and alienage (the status of being an alien).

Forcing employers to judge employees by their ability to do their job is forcing them to be rational.

Comment author: VoiceOfRa 12 April 2015 06:10:03PM 2 points [-]

Except the burden is on the employer to "prove" (using only legal evidence) that the test is relevant.

Comment author: TheAncientGeek 12 April 2015 06:49:29PM *  -2 points [-]

How does that impact my stated point?

Comment author: Jiro 13 April 2015 03:41:15AM *  1 point [-]

"You can use evidence relevant to the person's ability to do their job" and "you can use evidence that you can 'prove' is relevant to the person's ability to do their job" (where 'prove' in quotes is not the same as actual proof) are very different.