eli_sennesh comments on How do humans assign utilities to world states? - Less Wrong

2 Post author: Dorikka 31 May 2015 08:40PM

You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.

Comments (11)

You are viewing a single comment's thread. Show more comments above.

Comment author: [deleted] 04 June 2015 03:25:28PM 1 point [-]

Well, there is one case in which naive utility theory makes perfect sense: when the utility function is just measuring the value of some real-number random variable inside the epistemic model (ie: when reading a number off your map tells you the utility of the territory). Since utility theory was invented to deal with economics, in which such a random variable exists and is called "money", nobody ever bothered to ask what happened when you didn't have such a convenient real-valued, assumed-monotonic random variable.

Comment author: OrphanWilde 04 June 2015 03:37:04PM 1 point [-]

True. Although I think most utility theorists would be somewhat horrified if you suggested that money was the only thing worth measuring, when measuring utility.

Comment author: [deleted] 04 June 2015 03:40:18PM 1 point [-]

Well of course, because they conceived of utility theory as giving value to money. They also invented a utility theory that only really applies to measuring money. It was a kind of doublethink in which, if real human preferences don't fit a model constructed to deal with money, then economists conclude that humans are Irrational (in a capital-letter ideological sense) rather than trying to come up with a model of evaluative reasoning that actually explains the data gained from real people.