This paper includes an interesting paragraph:
And noticing one of the listed side effects, would you not conclude that you had been given the real drug? In one study, 89% of the patients in the drug group correctly ‘‘guessed’’ that they had been given the real antidepressant, a result that is very unlikely to be due to chance
If that's true shouldn't we ask this question by default in placebo-blind trials?
Probably but the use and interpretation of blinding indexes is still a bit controversial. For example, the 2001 CONSORT guidelines suggested using and reporting a blinding index but the latest 2010 version dropped it, saying:
...Item 11 (blinding)—We added the specification of how blinding was done and, if relevant, a description of the similarity of interventions and procedures. We also eliminated text on “how the success of blinding (masking) was assessed” because of a lack of empirical evidence supporting the practice, as well as theoretical concerns abou
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4172306/pdf/zfp_222_3_128.pdf
The background on this story is a community of science people found a bunch of unpublished studies that, when weighed with the studies which supported antidepressant approval, showed they were no more effective than placebo in mild-moderate cases.
Except unlike placebo, antidepressants express a wider range of severe side effects, like worsening depression and suicide.
Isn't this a scandal? How do psychiatrists still prescribe these en masse?