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btrettel comments on Beyond Statistics 101 - Less Wrong
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Noether's theorem has nothing to do with Buckingham's theorem. Buckingham's theorem is quite general (and vacuous), while Noether's theorem is only about hamiltonian/lagrangian mechanics.
Added: Actually, Buckingham and Noether do have something in common: they both taught at Bryn Mawr.
In what sense do you mean Buckingham's theorem is vacuous?