EHeller comments on Beyond Statistics 101 - Less Wrong

19 Post author: JonahSinick 26 June 2015 10:24AM

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Comment author: Douglas_Knight 27 June 2015 08:09:33PM *  2 points [-]

Noether's theorem has nothing to do with Buckingham's theorem. Buckingham's theorem is quite general (and vacuous), while Noether's theorem is only about hamiltonian/lagrangian mechanics.

Added: Actually, Buckingham and Noether do have something in common: they both taught at Bryn Mawr.

Comment author: EHeller 27 June 2015 09:44:18PM 0 points [-]

It's a quite bit more general than Lagrangian mechanics. You can extend it to any functional that takes functions between two manifolds to complex numbers.