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Khoth comments on Open thread, Aug. 03 - Aug. 09, 2015 - Less Wrong
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I used the first meaning. Doesn't Chalmers use it as well?
I get the impression Chalmers is using something like Conceivable1 for the "zombies are conceivable" part of the arguments then sneakily switching to something more like Conceivable3 for the "conceivable, therefore logically possible" part.