pnrjulius comments on Infinite Certainty - Less Wrong

32 Post author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 09 January 2008 06:49AM

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Comment author: raptortech97 20 April 2012 09:29:20PM -1 points [-]

I intended the claim posed here about tests and priors. It is posed as
p(A|X) = [p(X|A)p(A)]/[p(X|A)p(A) + p(X|~A)*p(~A)]

But does it make sense for that to be wrong? It is a theorem, unlike the statement 2+2=4. Maybe some sort of way to show that the axioms and definitions that are used to prove Baye's Theorem are inconsistent, which is a pretty clear kind of proof. I'm not sure anymore that what I said has meaning. Well, thanks for the help.

Comment author: pnrjulius 27 May 2012 04:08:31AM 2 points [-]

It is a theorem, unlike the statement 2+2=4.

Uh, 2+2=4 is most definitely a theorem. A very simple and obvious theorem, yes. But a theorem.