it would not show that they were sufficient
It doesn't need to.
So, um... to go back along this line of argument a few posts, then...
it wasn't just Hitler; there were a whole lot of people working under his command whose free will was also involved.
...this means you're in agreement with what I wrote here, right?
I'm not sure exactly what point you're trying to make.
Six million Jews and six million others died in the Holocaust. It is not so easy to think for yourself when you are dead.
And several million other people hid jews in their attics; attempted (at great personal risk) to smuggle jews to safe places; helped jews across the borders; or, on the other side, hunted jews down, deciding to obey evil orders; arrested people and sent them to death camps; ran or even built said camps... and were, in one or another way, put through the wringer.
I can't find the reference now, but I do seem to recall reading - somewhere - that Holocaust survivors were significantly less likely to fall victim to the Milgram experiment or similar things.
(I'm not talking about the people who were killed at all.)
I'm not sure exactly what point you're trying to make.
1. The Holocaust could probably have been prevented, with no extra adverse consequences of similar severity, by an intervention that didn't interfere with more than one person's free will. 2. Therefore, a "free will" defence of (the compatibility of theism with) the world's evil needs to consider that one person's free will to be of comparable importance to all the suffering and death of the Holocaust. 3. If free will is that important, then in place of (or in addition to) the "problem...
Another month, another rationality quotes thread. The rules are: