Technoguyrob comments on Beautiful Math - Less Wrong

24 Post author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 10 January 2008 10:43PM

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Comment author: Technoguyrob 22 December 2011 01:35:44AM 1 point [-]

If you get a non constant, yes. For a linear function, f(a+1) - f(a) = f'(a). Inductively you can then show that the nth one-step difference of a degree n polynomial f at a point a is f^(n)(a). But this doesn't work for anything but n. Thanks for pointing that out!

Comment author: Sniffnoy 22 December 2011 02:06:16AM 0 points [-]

Ah, yes, that's a good point, because the leading coefficient be the same whether you use the x^k basis or the falling factorial basis.