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casebash comments on Subjective vs. normative offensiveness - Less Wrong
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I was using subjectively offensive to mean personally offensive; that is subjectively offensive relative to a person. Normatively offensive here means offensive relative to a group. So they are distinct. Does this clear it up? I'm getting quite confused here: are you a cultural relativist or do you believe that morality is individual?
I don't fit into pigeonholes well :-)