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predictable consequences of the advocated program.
The closest things to libertarianism that has ever existed are the classical liberal/capitalist states of the Anglosphere, which hardly seem fascist.
Lo and behold, the program is the same as the fascists'
You just assumed for the hypothetical that the program was what the libertarians advocated contra the fascists and then moved on to your imagined results, which is a different thing from the program itself.
and must therefore lead to the same results.
Predictable results lead to those same predictable results? Sounds like a circular argument to me.
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