Evidence against my idea! Firstly I was looking for reasons to believe that the replacement of clinical diagnosis by the TSH test in the early 70s was done carefully.

Now I'm looking for any attempt that has ever been made to refute the claims of Broda Barnes, or to investigate why there should be 'insulin resistance', but not resistance to other hormones.

As far as I can tell, there aren't any. They've just assumed their stupid TSH test to be gospel, despite massive patient complaints, and ignored a seventy year old tradition of treatment that appears to work really well, and that seems to be working really well on me.