thomblake comments on Variable Question Fallacies - Less Wrong

21 Post author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 05 March 2008 06:22AM

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Comment author: thomblake 12 April 2012 11:24:34PM *  0 points [-]

In the English language, the pronoun "his" (and similarly "him," "her," "it," etc.) always refers to the nearest possible preceding sensible noun.

Maybe where your from. In English where I'm at, Jim will use 'him' to refer to Bob if he wants.

Or am I not using the common definitions?

An answer of 'no' to that question would normally be interpreted "I am still beating my wife".

Descriptivism FTW.