You are correct that "I forgot", in the sense that I don't know exactly what you are referring to
Well, that explains a lot. It's not exactly ancient history, and everything is properly quoted, so you really should know what I'm talking about. Yes, it's about the identical table-chairs question from IKEA discussion, the one that I linked to just a few posts above.
Secondly, what I mean is that there are no determinate boundaries to the meaning of the word.
Why are there no determinate boundaries though? I'm saying that boundaries are unclear only if you haven't yet decided what they should be. But you seem to be saying that the boundaries inherently cannot be clear?
All categories are vague, because they are generated by a process similar to factor analysis
There is nothing vague about the results of factor analysis.
It is false that the meanings are arbitrary, for the reasons I have said.
On this topic, last we seemed to have agreed that "arbitrary" classification means "without reasons related to the properties of the objects classified". I don't recall you ever giving any such reasons.
It is also false that there is some "absolute and natural concept of a chair," and I have never suggested that there is.
For example, you have said '"are tables also chairs" has a definite answer'. Note the word "definite". You also keep insisting that there is factor analysis involved, which would also be an objective and natural way to assign objects to categories. By the way "natural" is the opposite of "arbitrary".
All words are defined either by other words, or by pointing at things, and precise concepts cannot be formed by pointing at things.
Yeah, I recall saying something like that myself. And the rest of your claims don't go well with this one.
you are the one who needs the "language 101" stuff
Well, you decided that I need it, then made some wild and unsupported claims.
You have been confusing the idea "this statement has a meaning" with "this statement is testable."
Yes, the two statements are largely equivalent. Oddly, I don't recall you mentioning testability or measurability anywhere in this thread before (I think there was something in another thread though).
Likewise, you have been confusing "this statement is vague" with "this statement is not testable."
I don't think I've done that. It's unfortunate that after this you spent so much time trying to to prove something I don't really disagree with. Why did you think that I'm confusing these things? Please quote.
Consider a line of stars. The one at the left end is a red giant. The one at the right end is a white dwarf. In between, the stars each differ from the previous one by a single atom. Then you have a question of vagueness. When exactly do we stop calling them white dwarfs and start calling them red giants? There cannot possibly be a precise answer. This has nothing to do with testability; we can test whatever we want. The problem is that the terminology is vague, and there is no precise answer because it is vague.
This is only as vague as you want it to be. If you want, you can cut the line, based on whatever reason, and call all the starts on one side "red giants" and stars on the other side "white dwarfs". It would be pointless, but there is nothing stopping you. You say "cannot possibly" and then give no reasons why.
I however have no problems with the vagueness here, because the two categories are only shorthands for some very specific properties of the starts (like mass). This is not true for "consciousness".
Nonetheless, this proves that testability is entirely separate from vagueness.
It's not a test if "no" is unobservable.
This is only as vague as you want it to be. If you want, you can cut the line, based on whatever reason, and call all the starts on one side "red giants" and stars on the other side "white dwarfs". It would be pointless, but there is nothing stopping you.
There is nothing stopping you only in the sense that nothing stops you from asserting falsehoods. (As we see is the case for you personally.)
It is intrinsically vague: "Red giant" does not and cannot have precise boundaries, as is true of all words. The same is true of &quo...
(This post grew out of an old conversation with Wei Dai.)
Imagine a person sitting in a room, communicating with the outside world through a terminal. Further imagine that the person knows some secret fact (e.g. that the Moon landings were a hoax), but is absolutely committed to never revealing their knowledge of it in any way.
Can you, by observing the input-output behavior of the system, distinguish it from a person who doesn't know the secret, or knows some other secret instead?
Clearly the only reasonable answer is "no, not in general".
Now imagine a person in the same situation, claiming to possess some mental skill that's hard for you to verify (e.g. visualizing four-dimensional objects in their mind's eye). Can you, by observing the input-output behavior, distinguish it from someone who is lying about having the skill, but has a good grasp of four-dimensional math otherwise?
Again, clearly, the only reasonable answer is "not in general".
Now imagine a sealed box that behaves exactly like a human, dutifully saying things like "I'm conscious", "I experience red" and so on. Moreover, you know from trustworthy sources that the box was built by scanning a human brain, and then optimizing the resulting program to use less CPU and memory (preserving the same input-output behavior). Would you be willing to trust that the box is in fact conscious, and has the same internal experiences as the human brain it was created from?
A philosopher believing in computationalism would emphatically say yes. But considering the examples above, I would say I'm not sure! Not at all!