Caledonian2 comments on Is Fairness Arbitrary? - Less Wrong

3 Post author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 14 August 2008 01:54AM

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Comment author: Caledonian2 14 August 2008 12:54:19PM 0 points [-]

If there was something that everyone agreed was fair, then such definition would be meaningful and non-empty.

ONLY if the agreement was based on identifiable principles. If the definition consists of nothing but the observation that people agree, then it provides information about people, not the ostensible subject.