Lake comments on Is Fairness Arbitrary? - Less Wrong

3 Post author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 14 August 2008 01:54AM

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Comment author: Lake 14 August 2008 04:28:32PM 0 points [-]

No, I suppose you're right, insofar as there's no fixed initial quantity to be divided. But both involve an equal *apportioning* of something: money to workers in the one case, and money to man-hours in the other. The parable doesn't undermine the notion that equality is essential to all concepts of fairness, even where different versions license different outcomes.