I don't think the second theory is any less "predictive" than the first. It could have been proposed at the same time or before the first, but it wasn't. Why should the predictive ability of a theory vary depending on the point in time in which it was created? David Friedman seems to prefer the first because it demonstrates more ability on the part of the scientist who created it (i.e., he got it after only 10 tries).

Unless we are given any more information on the problem, I think I agree with David.