Scientist 2's theory is more susceptible to over-fitting of the data; we have no reason to believe it's particularly generalizable. His theory could, in essence, simply be restating the known results and then giving a more or less random prediction for the next one. Let's make it 100,000 trials rather than 20 (and say that Scientist A has based his yet-to-be-falsified theory off the first 50,000 trials), and stipulate that Scientist 2 is a neural network -- then the answer seems clear.
David D. Friedman asks:
One of the commenters links to Overcoming Bias, but as of 11PM on Sep 28th, David's blog's time, no one has given the exact answer that I would have given. It's interesting that a question so basic has received so many answers.