Lumifer comments on An attempt in layman's language to explain the metaethics sequence in a single post. - All

1 Post author: Bound_up 12 October 2016 01:57PM

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Comment author: Lumifer 13 October 2016 02:24:26PM *  1 point [-]

if they were shown in a sufficiently deep way everything we know, they would be moved by it

That doesn't seem obvious to me at all.

Let's try it on gay marriage. Romans certainly knew and practiced homosexuality, same for marriage. What knowledge exactly do you want to convey to them to persuade them that gay marriage is a good thing?

I'm talking metaethics, what makes something moral

So, prescriptive. I am not sure in which way do you consider the theories "failed" -- in the sense that they have not risen to the status of physics meaning being able to empirically prove all their claims? That doesn't look to be a viable criterion. In the sense of not having taken over the world? I don't know, the divine command theory is (or, at least, has been) pretty good at that. You probably wouldn't want a single theory to take over the world, anyway.

Comment author: hairyfigment 23 October 2016 12:04:13AM 0 points [-]

What knowledge exactly do you want to convey to them to persuade them that gay marriage is a good thing?

Kind of a weird example, but I'll assume we're talking about the Praetorian Guard. The Romans seem to have had very little respect for women and for being penetrated. So right off the bat, having them read a lot of women's minds might change their views. (I'm not sure if I want to classify that as knowledge, though.) They likely also have false beliefs not only about women but about the gods and stable societies. None of this seems like a cure-all, but it does seem extremely promising.

Comment author: Lumifer 24 October 2016 03:08:20PM 1 point [-]

having them read a lot of women's minds

I don't understand what that means.

You think no male Roman actually knew what women think? The Roman matrons were entirely voiceless?