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Vladimir_M comments on How SIAI could publish in mainstream cognitive science journals - Less Wrong Discussion

64 Post author: lukeprog 09 March 2011 09:17PM

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Comment author: Vladimir_M 11 March 2011 05:46:40AM *  10 points [-]

lukeprog:

I personally find the style of mainstream philosophy and science much easier to understand than, say, your CEV paper. But that might be because mainstream philosophy and science is what I spend most of my time reading.

Seconded. I haven't read that many academic philosophy papers, but what I have seen has almost always been remarkably clear and understandable. I'm baffled that Eliezer would make such an extreme statement and actually mean it seriously (and get upvoted for it?!), considering how often he's cited academic philosophers like e.g. Chalmers, Bostrom, Dennett, or Parfit.

(Here of course I have in mind the Anglospheric analytic philosophy; continental philosophy is a horrible mess in comparison.)

Comment author: lukeprog 11 March 2011 06:20:56AM 1 point [-]

Yeah, don't get me started on continental philosophy.

BTW, one of my favorite takedowns of postmodernism is this one.

Comment author: Vladimir_M 11 March 2011 06:51:17AM *  0 points [-]

lukeprog:

BTW, one of my favorite takedowns of postmodernism is this one.

Thanks for the link. I skimmed the article and it seems well written and quite informative; I'll read it in full later.

In my opinion, there are some good insights in postmodernism, but as someone (Eysenck?) said about Freud, what's true in it isn't new, and what's new isn't true. In a sense, postmodernism itself provides perhaps the most fruitful target for a postmodernist analysis (of sorts). What these people say is of little real interest when taken at face value, but some fascinating insight can be obtained by analyzing the social role of them and their intellectual output, their interactions and conflicts with other sorts of intellectuals, and the implicit (conscious or not) meanings of their claims.

Comment author: cousin_it 11 March 2011 09:17:12PM *  2 points [-]

what's true in it isn't new, and what's new isn't true

The logical redundancy in this phrase has long bothered me.

Comment author: Vladimir_M 13 March 2011 04:09:47AM 2 points [-]

If I remember correctly, you're Russian? Those Slavic double negatives must be giving you constant distress, if you're so bothered by (seeming) deficiencies of logic in natural language.

Comment author: Emile 11 March 2011 09:48:43PM 0 points [-]

It's not redundant; it's a more witty and elegant way of saying that there are some new things, some true things, but none that are both.

Comment author: Sniffnoy 11 March 2011 10:24:34PM *  8 points [-]

It technically is redundant, though, because it has the form (A=>~B)&(B=>~A), while A=>~B and B=>~A are equivalent to each other. It doesn't need to be symmetrized because the statement was symmetric in the first place, even if it wasn't stated in an obviously symmetric form such as ~(A&B). (Going to have to say I like the redundant version for emphasis, though.)