jimrandomh comments on Bayesian Epistemology vs Popper - Less Wrong Discussion
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The assumptions behind Cox's theorem are:
Would you please clearly state which of these you disagree with, and why? And if you disagree with (1), is it because you don't think degrees of plausibility should be represented, or because you think they should be represented by something other than real numbers, and if so, then what? (Please do not give an answer that cannot be defined precisely by mapping it to a mathematical set. And please do not suggest a representation that is obviously inadequate, such as booleans.)
Could you explain what you're talking about a bit more? For example you state "consistency" as an assumption. What are you assuming is (should be?) consistent with what?
You may have valid points to make but it might help in getting people to listen to you if you don't exhibit apparent double standards. In particular, your main criticism seems to be that people aren't reading Popper's texts and related texts enough. Yet, at the same time, you are apparently unaware of the basic philosophical arguments for Bayesianism. This doesn't reduce the validity of anything you have to say but as an issue of trying to get people to listen, it isn't going to work well with fallible humans.
Cox's theorem is a proof of Bayes rule, from the conditions above. "Consistency" in t his context means (Jaynes 19): If a conclusion can be reasoned out in more than one way, then every possible way must lead to the same result; we always take into account all of the evidence we have relevant to a question; and we always represent equivalent states of knowledge by equivalent plausibility assignments. By "reason in more than one way", we specifically mean adding the same pieces of evidence in different orders.
(Edit: It's page 114 in the PDF you linked. That seems to be the same text as my printed copy, but with the numbering starting in a different place for some reason.)
If only Jaynes had clearly listed them on page 114!