that CPT symmetry is an immediate consequence of T symmetry
If so, then how can T symmetry hold? You seem to be saying that T symmetry implies CPT symmetry. But we know from experiment that CP symmetry is broken. If T symmetry holds, and CP symmetry does not hold, then CPT symmetry cannot hold.
Really, this looks pretty straightforward. The theory you quote has A->B. Experiment !B. Consequently, either !A or !(A->B).
OK - so, you don't understand the idea. There is a much more detailed description of the associated model written by someone else here.
The punchline at the bottom reads:
There is a wonderful consequence of what we have just described. This DM model has T symmetry. However the T symmetry in this DM model is exactly equivalent to CPT symmetry in ordinary physics. If a model like this were to reflect the physics of the real world, then T symmetry would be restored to physics as consistent with all the laws of physics and all experimental evidence!
Please let me know if that fails to sort you out - and you are still interested.
First, the theory rests on the airy assertion that reversing T automatically causes the reversal of spin and other quantum numbers as well. I found the argument given for this unconvincing. Second, and more importantly, you do not seem to have grasped that you cannot possibly have both T symmetry and CPT symmetry, because CP symmetry is experimentally excluded. It does not matter if you invent a special form of T symmetry that is 'equivalent' to CPT symmetry.
Take a physical system that exhibits CP violation; assume it is described by the kind of theory ou...
http://lifeboat.com/blog/2011/06/dear-dr-hawking
Hey guys, my quantum physics is not powerful enough to understand this guy... Can anyone help me out with this one?
Thanks LW