It should be noted that if you try to fit two multidimensional quantities over a single dimension, one is greater than the other depending on which axis you do the projection. In the case of a married couple in which the woman wants to have sex with her husband every single day, while he is bored and avoids her because of the lack of variety, who has more sex drive?
Besides, making studies without understanding the generation of female attraction is rather moot: the experiment where moderately attractive men simply ask women for sex makes my inner seducer smirk. In my experience, healthy women experience a sharp surge in sex drive, both in frequence and in variety, when they feel they are in safe environment, both from physical injuries and from social stigmatization.
In my experience, healthy women experience a sharp surge in sex drive, both in frequence and in variety, when they feel they are in safe environment, both from physical injuries and from social stigmatization.
And healthy men don't?
These sorts of statements always seem loaded to me, when they refer to just one gender despite being applicable to everyone.
There was a historical shift in beliefs.
I find this very odd. How could a major cultural lineage be wrong about something so much a part of ordinary experience?
When I say wrong, I don't necessarily mean that we're right, or the ancients were right, though there's a lot of evidence that the Victorians were wrong.
My favorite theory is that people's amount of desire for sex varies sufficiently that there's enough noise to make it easy to see patterns that aren't there. I leave the possibility open that there was a change (possibly dietary) which affected libido levels differently between men and women.
People are sufficiently punitive about sex that there's going to be lies and misdirection to support the current theory about how people are supposed to be.