Pfft comments on P(X = exact value) = 0: Is it really counterintuitive? - Less Wrong Discussion
You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.
You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.
Comments (49)
Do you think that the Dirichlet Processes models that machine learning people use might be relevant here? As I understand it, a DP prior says that the true probability distribution is a discrete probability distribution over some countable set of points, but you don't know which set in advance. So in the posterior, this can consistently assign some nonzero probability on a single point -- in fact, if you do the math the posterior is very simple, it's a mix between a DP and some finite probability mass on the values that you did see.
My minimal knowledge base says that sounds potentially relevant. Unfortunately, I don't know nearly enough about this sort of thing other than to make very vague, non-committal remarks.