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Pfft comments on P(X = exact value) = 0: Is it really counterintuitive? - Less Wrong Discussion

8 Post author: lucidfox 29 July 2011 12:45PM

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Comment author: Pfft 30 July 2011 02:39:17PM 1 point [-]

Do you think that the Dirichlet Processes models that machine learning people use might be relevant here? As I understand it, a DP prior says that the true probability distribution is a discrete probability distribution over some countable set of points, but you don't know which set in advance. So in the posterior, this can consistently assign some nonzero probability on a single point -- in fact, if you do the math the posterior is very simple, it's a mix between a DP and some finite probability mass on the values that you did see.

Comment author: JoshuaZ 30 July 2011 06:52:10PM 1 point [-]

My minimal knowledge base says that sounds potentially relevant. Unfortunately, I don't know nearly enough about this sort of thing other than to make very vague, non-committal remarks.