Huh? I don't see these statements as equivalent at all. [...] Use of the singular word dollar, to my dialect, rules out the "fraction of self-worth" interpretation.
Before I go any further I am making the prediction that if someone put a gun to your head and said, "Identify your political affiliation with a name or I will kill you now", you would say "progressive". (I'm putting a roughly 75% probability on that but perhaps a 60-80% threshold of confidence. Bear these numbers with salt; I believe humans are extremely poor at assigning probabilities.)
n+1 > n. Let "n" equal "the number of dollars the person owns". If "A poor person is more likely to base his self-worth on how many dollars he owns than a rich person is likely to base his self-worth on how many dollars he owns" is true, then it stands that n+1 is a higher increase in self-worth for the 'arbitrary' poor person (compared to n) than is n+1 an increase compared to n for the 'arbitrary' rich person.
2\a. How does point #2 affect your assessment of the rephrasing being representative of the original phrase?
1\a. I am interested in knowing the accuracy of my prediction. :)
You are saying that your interpretation implies the original question. But that leaves the possibility of your question being a stronger statement than the original question. If a libertarian denies your interpretation that does not necessarily mean they deny the original question.
In other words, it is possible that if "A poor person is more likely to base his self-worth on how many dollars he owns than a rich person is likely to base his self-worth on how many dollars he owns" is false that "it stands that n+1 is a higher increase in self-w...
A article in the Atlantic, linked to by someone on the unofficial LW IRC channel caught my eye. Nothing all that new for LessWrong readers, but still it is good to see any mention of such biases in mainstream media.
I break here to comment that I don't see why we would expect this to be so given the reality of academia.