You are saying that your interpretation implies the original question.
I'm saying it's an interpretation of the original question, yes.
No. "A implies B" means either A&B, ~A&B, or ~A&~B. "A is an interpretation of B" means either A&B or ~A&~B, but excludes ~A&B. Let the statements be
(X) “A dollar means more to a poor person than it does to a rich person”
(Y) "A poor person is more likely to base his self-worth on how many dollars he owns than a rich person is likely to base his self-worth on how many dollars he owns."
You argued that Y implies X, but you didn't do anything to argue against X&~Y. I happen to believe X&~Y, which makes these statements definitely not mere rephrasings of each other.
"A is an interpretation of B" means either A&B or ~A&~B, but excludes ~A&B
Let the statements be (X) [...] (Y)
Here's your error. There's a (Z).
(Z) "A poor person will suffer more for the lack of one dollar than a rich person will suffer for the lack of one dollar."
Here's what I originally said, broken into symbolic logic for you:
At no time did I say, however, that Y ⊃ Z. That assertion would be a direct contradiction of my last line in the comment:
...Both of these rephrasings are potenti
A article in the Atlantic, linked to by someone on the unofficial LW IRC channel caught my eye. Nothing all that new for LessWrong readers, but still it is good to see any mention of such biases in mainstream media.
I break here to comment that I don't see why we would expect this to be so given the reality of academia.