Or they might not have the money to spare. Not all economic decisions are constrained by preference -- there is a real point in life, occupied by a great many people even in the US, where the desire for a McDonald's Cheeseburger is basically irrelevant to the fact that right now, you cannot afford it.
You don't seem to be using the word "preference" in the same way I am (or economists do).
If I have only $2, and so can't afford a $1 cheeseburger, then we say that I prefer $1 to a cheeseburger. You have a choice--either keep your $1, or get a cheeseburger--and you choose to keep your dollar. This seems perfectly clear.
In the extreme case, when everything you own and your labor is literally worth less than a cheeseburger, then this doesn't exactly work: it may be that you would rather get a cheeseburger than a $1, so that you will buy a cheeseburger at literally the first opportunity. Very few people are this poor, and those who are don't generally buy hamburgers as soon as they get $1. There are much better ways to spend a dollar: cheeseburgers aren't worth $1 to the rational poor.
Now whether we interpret this as meaning that the poor care less about a cheeseburger, or as saying that they care more about $1, seems to me to be a question of semantics which no one cares about.
A article in the Atlantic, linked to by someone on the unofficial LW IRC channel caught my eye. Nothing all that new for LessWrong readers, but still it is good to see any mention of such biases in mainstream media.
I break here to comment that I don't see why we would expect this to be so given the reality of academia.