The word "exist" doesn't do any useful work here. There are conceivable worlds that are different from this one, and whether they exist depends on the definition of "exist". But they're still relevant to an anthropic argument.
The habitability of the universe is not evidence of anything because the probability of observing a habitable universe is practically unity.
Can you clarify why a conceivable world that doesn't exist in the conventional sense of existing is relevant to an anthropic argument?
I mean, if I start out as part of a group of 2^10 people, and that group is subjected to an iterative process whereby we split the group randomly into equal subgroups A and B and kill group B, then at every point along the way I ought to expect to have a history of being sorted into group A if I'm alive, but I ought not expect to be alive very long. This doesn't seem to depend in any useful way on the definition of "alive."
Is it different for universes? Why?
This is for anyone in the LessWrong community who has made at least some effort to read the sequences and follow along, but is still confused on some point, and is perhaps feeling a bit embarrassed. Here, newbies and not-so-newbies are free to ask very basic but still relevant questions with the understanding that the answers are probably somewhere in the sequences. Similarly, LessWrong tends to presume a rather high threshold for understanding science and technology. Relevant questions in those areas are welcome as well. Anyone who chooses to respond should respectfully guide the questioner to a helpful resource, and questioners should be appropriately grateful. Good faith should be presumed on both sides, unless and until it is shown to be absent. If a questioner is not sure whether a question is relevant, ask it, and also ask if it's relevant.