army1987 comments on Explained: Gödel's theorem and the Banach-Tarski Paradox - Less Wrong Discussion
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I seem to recall reading about a way to divide the interval [0, 1] in subsets, translating some of them, and getting [0, 2] (involving the Vitali set or something like that), but maybe my memory fails me.
Whfg pbafvqre gur onyy nf orvat znqr hc ol enqvv. Or am I missing something?
This is possible if you use infinitely many subsets. With an uncountably infinite number of pieces it is true by definition, with a countably infinite number of pieces it can be proven using the Vitali set, and with a finite number of pieces it is not true.
What Oscar_Cunningham said, but basically, no, you are not.
I was expecting something harder given that you called it "a nice exercise", so I pretty much assumed that mine was not the right solution...
Okay. In the original formulation of the paradox, the task is to cut a ball into pieces, and assemble two balls from the pieces. If I am not mistaken, you have solved a slightly easier task: cut a ball into pieces, and covered two balls with the pieces (with overlaps). A part of the "nice exercise" is to bridge this gap.
Jurer qbrf gur prager tb?
Jvgu gur abegu cbyr (be nal bgure neovgenel qverpgvba). Vf gurer nal ceboyrz jvgu gung V pnaabg frr?