Caspian comments on Michael Nielsen explains Judea Pearl's causality - Less Wrong Discussion
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If you have a specified causal system you could represent it either way, yes.
Speculating on another reason he may have made the distinction: often he posed problems with specified causal graphs but unspecified functions. So he may have meant that in the problems like these, with one approach you can easily specify some node values as being deterministic functions of other node values, whereas with the other approach you don't (since a specified graph rules out further random influences in one approach but not the other).