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paulfchristiano comments on Second order logic, in first order set-theory: what gives? - Less Wrong Discussion

10 Post author: Stuart_Armstrong 23 February 2012 12:29PM

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Comment author: cousin_it 24 February 2012 08:45:15AM *  1 point [-]

If you have a model of ZFC, you can make another model by adding some large cardinals on top, and the reals will stay the same. Or am I missing something?

Comment author: Quinn 24 February 2012 11:47:50PM 5 points [-]

The predicate "is a real number" is absolute for transitive models of ZFC in the sense that if M and N are such models with M contained in N, then for every element x of M, the two models agree on whether x is a real number. But it can certainly happen than N has more real numbers than M; they just have to lie completely outside of M.

Example 1: If M is countable with respect to N, then obviously M doesn't contain all of N's reals.

Example 2 (perhaps more relevant to what you asked): Under mild large cardinal assumptions (existence of a measurable cardinal is sufficient), there exists a real number 0# (zero-sharp) which encodes the shortcomings of Gödel's Constructible Universe L. In particular 0# lies outside of L, so L does not contain all the reals.

Thus if you started with L and insisted on adding a measurable cardinal on top, you would have to also add more reals as well.

Comment author: cousin_it 25 February 2012 08:54:41AM *  1 point [-]

Oh. Thanks.

Are there any examples of different models of ZFC that contain the same reals?

Comment author: Quinn 25 February 2012 11:05:37AM 4 points [-]

Well, models can have the same reals by fiat. If I cut off an existing model below an inaccessible, I certainly haven't changed the reals. Alternately I could restrict to the constructible closure of the reals L(R), which satisfies ZF but generally fails Choice (you don't expect to have a well-ordering of the reals in this model).

I think, though, that Stuart_Armstrong's statement

Often, different models of set theory will have the same model of the reals inside them

is mistaken, or at least misguided. Models of set theory and their corresponding sets of reals are extremely pliable, especially by the method of forcing (Cohen proved CH can consistently fail by just cramming tons of reals into an existing model without changing the ordinal values of that model's Alephs), and I think it's naive to hope for anything like One True Real Line.

Comment author: Stuart_Armstrong 27 February 2012 02:20:09PM 0 points [-]

Thanks for that elucidation.

Comment author: cousin_it 25 February 2012 11:28:07AM *  0 points [-]

Thank you for helping me fill my stupid gap in understanding!