It's not obvious to me that Bayesian reasoning implies that slippery slopes always happen. In short, I don't understand your assertion.
Too strong; one does not need for them to always happen.
In response to the question you meant to ask, Yvain said it well
http://www.yourlogicalfallacyis.com
Just printed an A3 of this.
See now http://lesswrong.com/lw/c9u/logical_fallacies_poster_a_lesswrong_adaptation/