Fallible does not equal human. A human would still determine whether to put money in the box or not based only on the past, not on the future, and at that point the problem becomes "if you've been CDT so far, you won't get the $1,000,000, no matter what you do in this instance of the game."
Suppose that Omega is wrong with probability p<1 (this is a perfectly realistic and sensible case). What does (your interpretation of) CDT do in this case, and with what probability?
Here is my EDT calculation:
calculate p(2box|1box prediction)1001000+p(2box|2box prediction)1000=1001000(1-p)+1000p
calculate p(1box|1box prediction)1001000+p(1box|2box prediction)1000=1001000p+1000(1-p)
pick largest of the two (which is 1-box if p < 50%, 2-box if p > 50%).
Thus one should 1-box even if Omega is slightly better than chance.
I have read lots of LW posts on this topic, and everyone seems to take this for granted without giving a proper explanation. So if anyone could explain this to me, I would appreciate that.
This is a simple question that is in need of a simple answer. Please don't link to pages and pages of theorycrafting. Thank you.
Edit: Since posting this, I have come to the conclusion that CDT doesn't actually play Newcomb. Here's a disagreement with that statement:
And here's my response:
Edit 2: Clarification regarding backwards causality, which seems to confuse people:
Edit 3: Further clarification on the possible problems that could be considered Newcomb:
Edit 4: Excerpt from Nozick's "Newcomb's Problem and Two Principles of Choice":